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E190 Systems+Limitations

Multiple choice cards
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What happens during a windy day, 40kt headwind during TO, you press TOGA, but passing 60kt IAS, the HOLD mode becomes active?
You will get a EICAS message that TL are not in TOGA mode
What is the min/max pitch limit for takeoff all engines operating?
Min 7, max 18 degrees
There are two types of CBs, what are they called?
Thermal CBs (The standard physical variant) located in the FD and electronic CBs inside the SPDAs
What happens if the engine fails to light off on the first attempt?
FADEC will dry motor for 30 sec, then turn on single ignition and try again
Can you discharge the cargo fire supression without any fire being detected?
Yes, pressing the button arms the bottle, a second press within 120 seconds discharges the high rate bottle
APU max altitude bleed air
15000 ft
Below what height is auto pitch trim inhibited?
Max recommended crosswind, Specially prepared winter runway RCC 4
20 kt
Flap 4 extended speed?
180 kt
APU max start altitude
30000 ft
What is the normal / SECT radar sweep angles?
Normal 60 degrees, SECT 30 degrees
The FADEC has no protections for X, Y, Z in-flight
Hot starts, hung starts, or failure to light off for in flight engine starts
After the initial pitch target, what is the speed target commanded for all engines operating?
V-LO for retraction?
235 kt
How many P-ACE, and where located?
3 total, 2 in the forward electronics bay, 1 in the aft bay
Where is the water tank access door?
In the aft, around the center line
After holding one half of the pitch trim switch on your yoke for 8 s, an aural "TRIM" message is heard, and an EICAS "PITCH TRIM SW FAIL" Caution message. How do you re-engage trim functionality again?
Either by next power up, or via the "PITCH TRIM SYS CUTOUT" button
Max recommended crosswind, Compacted snow
20 kt
How many bottles are there for the APU extinguisher?
If slats locked below 15 degrees, what is the maximum flaplever position allowed, and what is the actual flap defleciton limited to?
Position 2 and 10 degrees flap angle
How many seconds of roll out in Autoland 1?
5 Seconds
Should you be cautious with arming VPG if holding before commencing approach?
YES, VGP can otherwise be engaged and start to decent on the final path
Is it possible to reach maximum fuel capacity by pressurized refueling?
No. Gravity fueling must be used to fill the reminder of the tank
Flap 2 extended speed?
215 kt
What is the respective slat/flap angle in Flap 1
15 and 7 degrees
Which bus powers the ACMP 1B?
What conditions activates the ATTCS into RSV?
Eng fail on TO, Eng fail on GA, Windshear or difference between N1 is more than15% between engines
MLW (195)
45000 kg
What busses does the TRU ESS power?
What altitude will the cabin climb to if you press the DUMP switch?
12400ft with 2000ft/min

At what altitude does the TSA operate  on takeoff?

20 ft

How many lights are there to indicate water tank quantity?
What is the tail-span of the E195?
12.08 meters
Which bus is charging the FBW backup battery`?
DC ESS 3 or DC ESS BUS 3 depending on MOD
How many fire detectors are in the FWD Cargo hold?
What is the alignment time for the IESS?
90 s
How many channels does the FADEC have?

What vertical mode is associated with SPD-E in the FMA


What is the system speed does flap operate in case of RAT deployment?

Half speed

What happens when you pull an engine fire handle?
4 things, fuel shutoff valve close, hydraulic valve close, bleed air valve close and cross bleed shut off valve closes.
Is it possible to shut down the engine without having lever set to IDLE?
No. On ground however it is possible to shut it down provided the Throttle angle is less than 5 degrees. You will have an EICAS " ENG TLA NOT IDLE"
What happens to the PACKs if you set the Throttles to MAX position?
Closes in case APU bleed not available
Where is the fuel temperature measured?
Left wing tank
Is assumed temperature TO available with ATTCS selected off?
What hydraulic system powers the Upper Rudder PCU?
Hydraulic 1
How many seconds must the IDG rotary switch be held in DISC to disconnect the IDG?
One sec
How many ACE are fitted?
What is the capacity of the water tank?
110 l
What is the respective slat/flap angle in Flap Full
25 and 37
Which hydraulic system contains the nose wheel steering?
Which hydraulic systems actuate the left and right OUTBOARD PCUs? (R2,L2)
Hydraulic 1
What voltage is the DC bus?
APU max altitude to assist engine start
21000 ft
At what N2 does fuel flow start?
20-25% N2
Right PFD uses which ADS?
What is the function of the P-ACE?
They are connected directly to the control column to the respective control surface.
Which hydraulic system contains the Emergency Parkin Brake?

Max negative diff pressure for takeoff?

-0.2 PSI

How long is the ground alignment of the IRS?
Up to 17 min
The APU is monitored and controlled through?
A dediated FADEC
What does the BANK BUTTON do?
It limits the bank angle to 17/15 degrees depending on software
How many loops are located in the engine?
At what N2 dows starter cutout?
50% N2
What is the model and manufacturer of the engine of the E195?
General Electric CF34-10E
How many scavenge pumping elements in the oil system?
What is the lenght of the E195?
38.67 meters
How many igniters are active on ground engine start?
How many slots are fitted in each flap?
Two slots

What does the SPD-E mean?

"Speed on elevator" associated with FLCH

How long should the batteries be able to power the aircraft in case of emergency, no RAT deployment?
What is the pitch target for TO in Flap4
12 degrees
Engine starting limit, What is maximum starter duty cycle 2 - 5 attempt?
30 sec ON

Name the 4 ICCs (Integrated Control Center)


How are "ROOT" CAS messages displayed?
With a Chevron "<" symbol
How long after icing condition has been detected will the anti ice system operate?
5 min
Max tailwind
What is VPATH to VFLCH transition?
When a speed can not be maintained during a VPATH mode, the system automaticall transitions to VFLCH
Which bus powers BCM 2?
Which hydraulic systems actuate the left and right INBOARD PCUs (R1, L1)?
Hydraulic 2
What happens with speed brakes below 180kt?
They retract
If no light off is detected within XX sec, start should be manually aborted
30 second
Above what TLA does the Speed brakes retract?
70 degrees TLA
Above what speed is the Mach trim operating?
Above 0.7
Max tire speed?
195 kt
What is the pitch tail srike limit
Around 10 degrees Flap Full
How many ICCs (Integrated Control Centers) are there?
What happens with the cabin altitude during a level off in a step climb?
The cabin keeps on climbing, provided that flight level data is insterted in the FMS
What prefix does the "Root EICAS" messages have?
Chevron prefix
Which Hydraulic system does the RAT power?
HYD 3A, AC pump
What does the "DES NOW" promt do in an early descent?
Descends at 1000fpm
What is the maximum wind speed for an open and locked cargo door?
Which electrical bus powers the engine fire exinguisher?
What is the nominal dif. pressure at or above 37000ft?
8.4 PSI
Static takeoff is not recomended with crosswinds greather than?
30 kt
Will the low-rate bottle be automatically discharged on ground?
No, it must be manually discharged by the flight crew
What is total fuel capacity?
13100 kg
Which bus powers BCM 1?
How many DVDR are fitten on board?
Two, one in the FWD avionics bay and one in the AFT bay
What hydraulic system powers the lower Rudder PCU?
Hydraulic 3
How many pumps in HYD 1?
Two, EDP 1 and one electric pump
At what altitude does FLARE mode engage?
Can the pilot alternate the AP channel manually?
Yes, in the MCDU setup page
How many fire detectors are in the AFT Cargo hold?
What does the AMS consist of?
Pneumatic and Environmental Control System (ECS)
What is V-FS speed?
Take off final segment speed
During single pack operation, what is the recommended time between new temperature selections?
10 min
What positions does the Autobrake knob have?
5, RTO, OFF, LO, MED and HI
What is the green pitch trim band for take off?
2 to -4 degrees
What is the nominal dif. pressure below 37000ft?
7.8 PSI
Where is the EICAS display brightness knob located?
Left hand glare shield
V-MO (Below 8000ft)
300 kt
When an engine fire is detected, how many alerts/indications will there be?
5, aural warning, fire handle lights up, master warning light, fire warning light on ITT and EICAS WARNING message
What is the ETC? (Elevator Thrust Compensation)
Provides automatic pitch trim input of +-5 degrees to compensate for engine thrust variations
Engine 1 is started and park brake is released, what happens to ACMP 2B?
It automatically activates to provide nose wheel steering

Pitch axis control is by means of? (What type of actuators)

Electro-Hydraulic elevators

Do you need to manually press the AC GPU pushbutton, even if the light "IN USE" has already extinguished?
What happens during OVSP (Overspeed protection)
The FD provides guidance to to maintain the speed outisde of the overspeed condition
V-LO for extension?
265 kt
Where are FCM 1 and 2 located?
In MAU #1
What is the max altitude for APU to provide electrical power?
33000 ft
Max altitude for flap extension?
20000 ft
Cooling period between 1 and 2 start attempt for APU?
60 sec OFF
What will the Aircraft do if you exceed speed more than 5kt where a coded speed limit exist over a point, provided you fly in VPATH?
The aircraft will temporare engage VALT or VSEL, level off to get the speed down to the limit and then engange VFLCH
At what speed do the rolling digits appear on the speed tape on T/O?
What is the rating of the RAT?
Above what altitude will the NO MOKING and FAST SEATBELT sign come on automatically?
Aileron control: Which hydraulic system controls the left and right OUTBOARD PCU?
Hydraulic 3
How many flap actuators are located per side?
4, two per flap surcace
Where are FCM 3 and 4 located?
In MAU #2
How long does the Hydraulic PBIT last?
1 minute
When will the ACMP 1B operate?
If flaps out of 0, or EDP 1 or ENG 1 fail
Explain the sequence during an APU normal shutdown.
The bleed load is immediately removed and the electrical load is available for 1 or 2 min (depending on SB). During this time the APU is allowed to cool down. After this cycle, the APU actually shuts down. During this time the message "APU SHUTTING DOWN" is posted on the EICAS.
Cooling period after third attempt start APU
5 min OFF
What systems are interconnected via the PTU?
HYD 1 and HYD 2
How many seconds before a miscompare indication is annunciated?
20 seconds
Max recommended crosswind, Dry
What is ALIGN mode in autoland?
Lateral guidance with ailerons and rudder (flying with a sideslip)
Where is the water tank level located?
Aft attendant panel
What is the "pilot selected" values color on the PFD
Time required for a stationary aligment of the IRS?
5-17 min
How many CAS messenges can fit on the screen?
What condition must be met to enable "Gust compensation"
Flap out of 0
Where is the physical oxygen pressure guage located?
In the forward cargo compartment
What happens if CLB 1 thrust is higher than TO-X thrust?
CLB 2 is automatically selected to prevent from increasing thrust in climb
MTOW (195)
50790 kg
265 kt
When is the mach number displayed?
When flying above M 0.45 and until speed falls below M 0.40
What is the time delay after landing for APU bleed to open?
30 sec
What are the condition for ground spoiler deployment?
WOW, Wheel speed of more 45kt or IAS above 60kt, and TLA below 26 degrees
The P-ACE, Primary Actuator Control Electronics, operate what?
Electro-Hydraulic components
Is it possible to feed the APU via the left tank?
Yes, via the crossfeed valve
What does the LOW 1 XFEED selector do?
Uses AC PUMP 2 to supply both engines from the Right Tank
What is the failsafe operation of the engine anti-ice valve?
Failsafe open
In the FLCH mode, SPD-E, the Autothrottle will?
Maintain a fixed thrust setting and the AP maintains the selected speed via the elevator
What powers the IESS in case of electrical emergency?
RAT or Batteries
At what % N2 start ignition?
7% N2
What does the IESS stand for?
Integrated Electronic Standby System
What will interrupt the Electrical PBIT?
If any hydraulic pump is running, or if the FCP switches are cycled, or if AC power is interrupted
After how many seconds on ground, will the APU automatically shut down in case of fire?
10 seconds
How many SF-ACE?
2, in the middle electronics bay
Which trim switch has the highest priority?
The back up switches
What is ADA?
Air Data Application
During APU start with ground AC power, which fuelpump operates?
The AC fuel pump in the right tank
What side is the waste tank access door?
In the aft, slightly right side
How many MFS are there?
6 in total
How many seconds must the systems have sensed a WOW to provide autobrake function?
2 seconds
What is the TSA?
Tail Strike Avoidance
What happens if you push the APU Emergency Stop Button?
It closes the APU Fuel shutoff valve, shutting down the APU with no cooldown period
What warning will you receive if actual flap setting does not match FMS flap setting for takeoff?
Which BUS powers the door lock?
What happens to the PACKs if one engine fail?
Packs valves close in case APU not available
APU max altitude electrical gen
33000 ft
Mach 0.82
Engine starting limit, What is the cooling time following a failed starter cycle?
5 min OFF
What primary surface is conventional?
What are the indications that a passenger door is secured in th locked closed position?
One green latch and two green lock indications
What does the LOW 2 XFEED selector do?
Uses AC PUMP 1 to supply both engines from the Left Tank
When does the automatic wing anti ice test occur?
At 10000ft agl or after 10 min of airborne time, which ever comes first
What is the maximum wind speed for opening and closing doors?
V-MO (above 8000ft)
320 kt
What is the maximum time the IDG rotary switch can be held in DISC position?
Three sec
On second attempt at light off, FADEC commands single ignition for how long?
7 sec
What systems are powered by HYD 3
Elevator, Rudder, and Ailerons
What is the height of the E195?
10.55 meters
Max recommended crosswind, Wet
31 kt
During ground start,below what ITT does the FADEC allow fuel flow?
120 degrees
Can you open the over wing exits from outside?

What does the SPDT on the FMA mean?

Speed on thrust

Max recommended crosswind, Runway with frost
31 kt
Max recommended crosswind, Specially prepared winter runway RCC 3
15 kt
A tickmark shown in icing conditions, below 1200FT RA with gear and flaps extended, indicates MIN N1 value to meet bleed demand
EGPWS WARNING TERRAIN is displayed in solid red, approximately?
30 sec from impact
What is the wing-span of the E195?
28.72 meters
What is the rated voltage of the battery?
What is the recommended time to wait after EICAS is energeized to start the APU?
30 seconds
What is the initial pitch during a GA?
8 degrees
What is the lowest altitude for LNAV to engage?
What happens with the air cirulation fan and the ventilation outflow valve in the FWD cargo in case of smoke?
The fan stops and the ventilation outflow valve closes
What is the maximum wind speed for an open and locked passenger door?
Is there an elevator trim compensation for flap changes`?
Which aircraft surface has the greatest turning radius?
The tail
Left PFD uses which ADS?
When IDG 1 or IDG 2 is selected off, what happens with the generator and the line contactor?
Generator is de-energized and the Line Contactor opens
At what value does the NPRV (Negative Pressure Relief Valve) open?
-0.5 PSI
What is the GP? (Guidance Panel)?
It is the panel where you select Lateral guidance, AFCS Management control and Vertical guidance control
When is a FMA alter magenta?
When commanded by the FMS

At what speed do the spoilers automatically retract? (On ground)

When wheel speed is below 45kt for at least 5 sec, or

What happens when you press the associated cargo compartment button in case of smoke?
The high rate bottle discharges immediately and 60 sec later the low rate bottle discharges
What rating does the TRU have?
300 A
What is the speed target, One engine fail, if engine fails below V2?
Commands V2
What is the DVDR?
Digital Voice Data Recorder
How many levels of aural warning messages?
4, Emergency (Lvl 3), Abnormal (Lvl 2), Advisory (Lvl 1), Information (Lvl 0)
What is the Fuel Low-Level Warning?
It is a warning from a separate sensor located in each Collector box. When fuel reaches 400kg in that box a warning is triggered
In case of multiple alterts, the highest priority aural warning is?
Is it possible to select a CLB thrust lower than TO Thrust?
At what altitude does the thrust ratng change automaticall, if no other has been manually selected?
Above 3000ft
What is the maximum trim time via the back up switches?
3 seconds ??
How can you activate the MIC in one of the Pilot Oxygen masks?
Open the door of the stowage box, or press TEST/RESET button
What is the ABM?
Autobrake control module
On ground, with aircraft powered by batteries only, a horn will sound to alert ground crew, after what time?
How long is the automatic wing anti ice test?
Maximum 60 sec, or sensors measure an increse of 10 degree fahrenheit
What is TLA Trim?
The change of engine parameters without moving the TLs, to reduce wear, synconise N1 etc

Max / Min runway slope?

+- 2%

In TOGA mode, what mode is te lateral mode?
What is the maximum banklimit during LOC capture?
35 degrees
At what altitude is windshear protection enabled?
Ground to 1500 AGL
Above what speed is the "Locked wheel Protection" active?
Above 30kt wheel speed
Max recommended crosswind, Slippery when wet
15 kt
Where is the flight crew oxygen cylinder located?
In the forward cargo compartment
How many flap surfaces per wing?
What is the limit for the TSA on landing?
70ft and below
How do you re-run the Hydraulic PBIT in case it was interrupted?
You need to depressurize and then pressurize all three hydraulic systems
During an APU fire in flight, will the APU shut down automatically?
What is the BIT routine of the winshield heating on ground if AC power available?
Heats the windows for 120 seconds
When commanding a turn via the HDG selector knob, great than 180 degrees, what happens?
The systems respects the turn direction of the knob, and can go all the way around in the direction of turn even above 180 degrees
What happens if the PBIT expires in flight?
Nothing, a caution message will be posted after landing
HYD 1 provides brake pressure to?
Outboard brakes
You have been flying the airplane with MANUAL pressureization mode. Will the cabin depressurize after landing?
No. Must be done manually
Is speed brakes available in direct mode?
What is the rating of one IDG?
Which side engine bleed closes the APU bleed valve?
Left eng bleed avail closes the APU bleed
What is the roll limit for wing strike?
Around 13 degrees
Which Hydraulic system powers the yaw damper?
1 or 3
Which MAU and electrical bus powers the engine fire detection?
MAU 1 (DC ESS BUS 1) and MAU 3 (DC ESS BUS 2)
What class of compartments are cargo compartments?
Class C
How many PCUs are connected to the rudder?
What happens if you press and hold the FIRE EXTINGUISHER TEST BUTTON for more than 10 seconds?
APU will automatically shut down
How many PSEM (Proximity Sensor Electronic Modules) are installed?
Which MAU and electrical bus powers the APU fire detection?
MAU 1 (DC ESS BUS 1) and MAU 3 (DC ESS BUS 2)
How manu TRUs?
When will the TEMP COMP page be accessible?
30NM from destination
Is there an elevator trim compensation to thrust changes?
What powers the actuation of the slats and flaps?
Electrical power
How long is the FPA inhibited during take off?
30 seconds
At what radial distance can you arm VGP mode?
Above what speed is the RTO autobrake function active?
Above 60kt
Where is the nose wheel steering disengage switch located?
left Pilots yoke
Between the Engine bleed valve, and APU Bleed valve, which one has priority?
The engine bleed valve
Can you canacel the APU shutdown?
Yes, by turning the knob back to ON cancels the shutdown
What is the engine flat rate?
ISA +15 or ISA + 20 depending on model
What altitudes will the TEMP COMP future modify?
Only database FMS constraints, meaning no pilot entered constraints

Which bus powers AC PUMP 1? (Fuel)


Above what N2 does the FADEC PMA power the FADEC?
Above 50% N2
How many elevator control channels?
What busses does the TRU 2 power?
DC BUS 2, DC ESS BUS 2, HOT BATT BUS 2, and Battery 2 charging
What is the thrust of the E190 engine?
What precondition for the initialization of the Hydraulic PBIT?
Three hydraulic systems operating, and flight control not moved for 1 min
What has priority, TSA or AOA limiter?
AOA limiter
Below what speed does the RAT stop powering the DC ESS BUS+STANDBY AC BUS?
Below 130kts
What does the mode function "TIMER" work in regards to the windshield wiper?
Operates with 8 second intermittent operation
How many FCM are fitted?
What is the respective slat/flap angle in Flap 2
15 and 10 degrees
How many inverters are fitted?
When an APU fire is detected, how many alerts/indications will there be?
4, aural warning, red stripped bar of the APU emergency stop button illuminates, master warning lights and EICAS warning message
What extinguisher bottles are there for the cargo fire suppresion?
Two bottles, one high-rate and one low-rate located in the center avionics bay
Max negative diff pressure?
-0.5 PSI
What is the function of the FCM?
Provide digital imputs to the P-ACE which are combined with pilot inputs to augument the surfaces and also provide AOA limiting to the P-ACE
What will interrupt the Hydraulic PBIT?
Movement of flight controls
There are three ground stations panels for ground staff to use and commuicate with the flight deck, where are they located?
Left lower nose near wheel well, left side belly fairing and left side under the left entrance door
MZFW (195)
42500 kg
What hydraulic system powers Emergency/Parking Brake?
HYD 1 and HYD 2
What is the time limit for light off?
15 seconds
What happens if you push the center of the ALT SELECTOR KNOB?
It disbplays altitude in meters aboe the ALT pre-selected window on the PFD
Above what APU RPM and after how many seconds is bleed and electrical load available?
When RPM is above 95% and 3 seconds has passed.
Where is MAU 3 located?
In the center electronics bay
What altitude is the windshear detection active?
10 - 1500 ft
What information does the ADSP provide?
Static pres, total pres, AOA and TAT
Max diff pressure?
8.4 PSI
What are the name of the MFS of the Right wing?
R3,R4,R5 counted from the wing root outwards
What happens if you push a Guarded Flight Control Mode swithc?
The respective systems reverts to Direct Mode
How many SPDAs (Secondary Power Distribution Assemblies) are there?
What is the maximum flap position when RAT extended?
Position 3
If you make a change to the vertical procedure profile, will VGP engage?
What is the primary means of radio tuning?
How does the flight controls function in direct mode?
It bypasses the FCMs
What is the ADSP?
Air Data Smart Probe
What happens during an inflight start if the ITT is exceeded?
FADEC interrupts fuel flow for 4 sec, then resumes the start. It does so 8 times, after this the FADEC will no longer interrupt the start
Is assumed temperature takeoff permitted on contaminated runway?
Can the IDG disconnect automatically?
Yes, above 185 degrees
How many magnetic dripstics are mounted under each wing?
What does ATTCS mean?
Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control System
How many loops does the ODS (Overheat Detection System) use
The APU shutdown is how many minutes?
2 or 1 depending on what SB is applied to the aircraft
Regarding Flap Strike Protection: How many attempts are allowed before the Strike protection cuts power to the PDU?
Is there a requirement for a specific FLAP setting to latch CAT 2 ILS capability?
Yes, FLAP 5 by latest 800ft
Name some functions of the Normal Mode in the flight control system?
10 modes in total.
What is the max altitude for APU start?
30000 ft
Below what altitude does the Emergency Ram Air open in case of dual pack fail?
Below 25000
Above what speed does HOLD mode in the AT activate?
How many AP are installed?
One, with dual channels
How many hours do the photo luminescence light strips provide lightning?
7 hours
How many channels does the CPC (Cabin Pressure Controller) have?
2 independent channels
What is the PBIT?
Power up built in test
At what distance will VGP become active?
5nm from FAF
During an APU fire on ground, will the APU shut down automatically?
HYD 2 provides brake pressure to?
Inboard brakes
If both AC power sources are lost, the RAT will deploy automatically. How many seconds will it take before it supplies power to AC ESS BUS?
Can the IESS display V/S and slip indications?
Around 26 kt the maximum steering angle is?
20 degrees
What is the numbering logic of the spoiler panels?
L1,L2,L3,L4,L5 and R1 etc for the right side

At what altitude is the Auto pitch trim logic enabled? (Regardng Autoland)

Commanded at 800ft

WHat is the TO mode?
It gives cross pointers during TO to aim for a pitch rather than a FPA. During this mode the AP can not be engaged and FPA is inhibited.
How many BCM (Brake Control Modules) are there?
Above what altitude is the Vacuum system of the toilet able to operate without the vacuum pump by means of Differential pressure?
Regarding the PC Power plug located in the FD: Can you have something connected in the plug before the power up of the airplane?
No, they plug will not energize if something is connected before power up. Remove the equipment and plug it in again after power up
At what altitude does RETD engage?
30ft, throtlle go to IDLE
What is the speed target, One engine fail, if engine fails between V2 and +10kt?
Commands the speed at point of failure
How many ADSP are there?
What is the respective slat/flap angle in Flap 5
25 and 20
During preflight, if a temperature of XX degress in the takeoff data setting, and engine anti ice has been selected off, a message "ENG REG A-I DISAG" will be posted. What tempereature?
5 degrees

How many leading edge wing panels are anti-iced?

three per side

Flap 3 extended speed?
200 kt
What happens if you during descent press the ALT button?
The aircraft new target altitude will be the altitude passing when pushing the button, and AC will level off there
If anti-ice system on ground in the FMS are in the "OFF" position, the system logic inhibits the activation of both engine and wing-anti ice for performance reasons, at what point is the inhibit logic removed?
When aircraft reach 1700ft AGL, or 2 min, which ever comes first
How long is the PBIT valid?
50 hours, elapsed time
When does the DVDR start to record flight data?
First engine start
When is the Fuel Low-Level Warning triggered?
When fuel in the collector box falls below 400kg
What is the automatic pitch trim logic in an autoland?
Commands a pitch trim nose up, which will cause the aircraft nose to pitch up in case of AP disengagement
Which Battery is exclusively used for APU start?
Batt 2
What is the max altitude for APU to supply bleed air for air conditioning?
15000 ft
Can the autoland be performed without the Autothrottle?
What happen if you press the AP/TRIM DISC BUTTON for more than 11s?
PITCH TRIM FAIL Caution EICAS. When released, all systems restored
At what speed after Touchdown does the transponder switch to "on ground" status?
Below 50kts
Which electrical bus powers the APU fire exinguisher?
The STBY AC BUS is norally powered by the ESS AC BUS. In which case will it be powered by the Inverter?
When aircraft is powered by Batteries only
Flap 5 extended speed?
180 kt
What does the SECTOR SCAN do on the weather radar?
Decreases sweep angle to +- 30 degree and increase rate of sweep to 42
During battery start of the APU, which pump operates and from which tank is it feeding?
The DC Pump operates located in the right wing tanks.
Above what speed does the nose wheel steering angle start reducing from XX degrees to YY degrees?
Starts reducing from +-76 degrees above 40kts and reaches +-7 degress by 100kts
What is the max altitude for APU to supply bleed air for engine start?
21000 ft
After a power up, a special nose wheel steering procedure must be used to avoind a "STEER FAIL" message. What is the procedure?
First steering engagement must be performed with the airplane stopped
What is the maximum time allowed for aileron and rudder trim?
3 seconds
When is the "FUEL IMBALANCE" displayed?
When difference between tanks is 360kg
Which hydraulic pump in HYD 3 is the primary one?
At what altitude does IAS Mach changeover occur?
around 29000ft
What is V-AC speed?
V approach climb speed
What is the minimum permissible TO flex thrust?
75% of rated thrust
On ground: Below what N2 is auto relight terminated?
Below 52% N2
How nany flap positions?
Seve, 0,1,2,3,4,5 and Full
What is the lenght between the nose and main gear?
14.64 meters
what is the trim speed in case of electrical failure?
It runs at half speed
Flap Full extended speed?
165 kt
What mode will you get if you select AP on with no modes selected on the GP?
You will get FPA in active mode
When does the YD power up?
As soon either HYD 1 or HYD 3 is available.
What is the capacity of the waste tank?
95 l
On second attempt at light off, FADEC commands double ignition for how long?
8 sec
What does the ADA do?
It computes final air data, and transmit it to the appropriate systems
What is the Minimum runway width for a 180 degree turn?
What is the charging time for the photoluminescent escape lights in the cabin?
15 min
How are the variable stator vanes actuated?
By fuel pressure controlled by the FADEC via the FMU (Fuel Metering Unit)
Above what altitude does the bank limit activate automatically?
25000 ft (not sure about Load27.1)
What does the "DES NOW" promt do in an late descent?
Commands 1.5 degree steper FPA to intercept the planned path
When does the "LANDING GEAR" aural alarm sound?
SLAT/FLAP in 5 of FULL position, regardless of altitude. For all other flap positions: RA below 700 ft, TLA below 45 degree (2 eng operating) or TLA below 60 degrees for one engine inop
How many WOW switches are installed?
6 total, 2 per landing gear
How long does the suppresion agent from the low rate bottle remain in the cargo compartment?
75 minute to allow 60min diversion
Which hydraulic system contains the landing gear retraction and extension?
How many HS-ACE?
1, in the aft electronics bay
How long will the batteries power the aircraft in an emergency?
What primary surfaces are FBW?
Elevator, Rudder
How many channels does the GP contain?
Two independent channels, A and B
What is the minimum speed target during a GA with all engines?
Vshaker +10
Where is the crew oxygen pressure indication?
On the status synoptic page on MFD
How many slats surfaces per wing?
Elevators are controlled by means of?
electro-mechanical actuators
How many hydraulic systems?
How many ADS are there?
Which bus powers AC PUMP 2
What does the green towling light on the nose gear indicate?
Steering disengaged via external steering, park brake not applied, main brakes not applied
What sensors does the TSA use?
HAGL from two RA during landing and estimated HAGL by V/S on takeoff
Whare are MAU 1 and 2 located?
In the forward electronics bay
What are the databases found in the FMS?
Navigation, Custom and Aircraft
Engine starting limit, What is maximum starter duty cycle first attempt?
90 seconds ON
Which hydraulic system has the greatest capacity?
Below what speed is the maximum steering angle achieved?
Below 10 kt
Can the anti-ice system be automatically activated in flight, even if the ice-detectors detect no ice?
Yes, during certain conditions. It will be active after 2 min of these conditions, and will remain on untill 2 min after these conditions are false
What is the tank capacity?
6550kg / 8076l
What is the speed target, One engine fail, if engine fails above V2 +10kt?
Commands a speed of V2+10
How long does the Electrical PBIT takes to run?
3 minutes
What busses does the TRU 1 power?
DC BUS 1, DC ESS BUS 1, DC GND SVC BUS, HOT BATT BUS 1 and battery 1 charging
What Flap setting for landing must be set to have TSA protection?
5 or 6
Aileron control: Which hydraulic system controls the left and right INBOARD PCU?
Hydraulic 2
IESS uses which ADS?
What secondary flight controlls are FBW?
All of them
What is the respective slat/flap angle in Flap 4
25 and 20
What is the AFU?
Artificial feel unit
What bus does the DC GPU power?
What is the transition time between TSA to AOA mode?
2 seconds
What is the FBW Back up battery?
An independet battery that powers some flight controls for 15 min, in the event of normal+emergency power failiures
Flap 1 extended speed?
230 kt
Below what speed is the antiskid disabled?
Below 10 kt wheel speed
What is the respective slat/flap angle in Flap 3
15 and 20
What is the maximum steering angle for nosewheel steering?
+- 76 degrees
What altitude does ALIGN mode engage?
150 ft
The FCM, Flgiht Control Modules operate what?
Electro-Mechanical actuators
What is the "FMS selected" values color on the PFD
Maximum permitted fuel imbalance?
360 kg
Where is the Refuel Control panel located?
Right wing
What happens if you press the Elevator button on the FCP is pushed in, besides going to direct mode?
A change over between the active and stand by channels occur
What is the maximum trim time via the yoke trim switches?
3 seconds
What is the minimum speed target during a GA with one engine inop?
What is the "Odd-even Day engage"?
A scheme to engage different channels of the rudder, elevator and stabilizer on odd or even days
Can you use speed brake upon selecting Flap 2 or more?
No, they will retract
Which bus powers the ACMP 2B?
Which bus powers ACMP 3A?
Min allowed OAT in flight
-65 degrees
What is the maximum pedal steering angle?
7 degrees
Max flap position for towbarless towing?
Flap 2
How many igniters are active for in-air engine start?
Does the MLG door cover the wheel and tire assemblies when retracted?
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