What happens if the Fuel Imbalance exceeds 440lbs?
Auto transfer is stopped
How many static dischargers are there on the stabilizer?
What is the function of the SGU, Starter Generator unit?
It has a dual function, can work as a start motor, and also as a generator
How to disconnect RB?
AP Disc, YD engagement, Thrust is symmetrical again
If the trim is out of range for TO, what color will the indication have?
Bank limit protection at VMO MMO?
Are redced by 20 degree, activates at 31 and stops at 11
What is the "Off-Load Cabin Mode"
When the cabin is a source of smoke, to de-energice galley, 60hz outlets, toilet pumps and inflight entertainment system.
How does the detector loop of the PC-24 work?
The detector consist of a sealed gas-filled tube which operates on the principle of gas expand with increase in temp and triggers a warning over a set-limit, both for overpressure and underpressure (leak)
Which DCPUs are used for right/left bus?
DCPU 1+3 for LEFT, DCPU 2+4 for RIGHT
What is the callout to resume CAS procedure?
What exterior lights are powered by the essential bus?
Left inboard landing, left inboard taxi and wing inspection light, cockpit lights
When MUST a static take off be used?
When RVR close to Take Off minimum or Contamintated runway
Maximum cargo weight (tie down kit in baggage compartment)
Which batteries are powered in "Refuel Mode"
Both BAT will be powered when in Refuel Mode
What is the "PPAA"
Power Performance Analysis Action
Who resets Warning / Caution lights after acknowledging failiures?
Load limits flaps down?
+2,0 - 0,0 g
Which engine is the Master for the ETTS (Electronic Thrust Trim System)
The horizon line that delineates the sky/ground break in the ADI is called?
ZPRL (Zero pitch reference line)
For 180 degree turn, what technique should be used?
Approach with 45 degree angle, use differential brake and thrust
Will BLUE CAS messages cause an aural alert?
What is the Parking Brake check of the Pre-flight?
Set and release Parking brake until pressure falls below 2800PSI, make sure pump starts and fills accumulator above 2800PSI, and then pump stops
What is generator load in idle and above?
When is ICE MODE 2 activated?
ICE have been detected, but the WAI system did not operate properly. Its latched until landing, or can be manually overridden.
How far out do the range rings display on the synthetic vision?
20nm, in increments of 3nm, 5nm, 10nm and 20nm
What is the callout for RoD?
Bank limit protection
Approaching 51 degree, and stops when back to 31 degree
When is the TAWS disabled?
Speed greater than 60kt
What flap setting for contamintaed runway? (Takeoff)
Only Flap 15
When is the "Normal Operating Mode" Active?
When respective bus is powered by respective generator and batteries are charged by respective charger
What speed should the IAS crosscheck be delayed to in case of contaminated runway?
Is fuel transfer allowed on takeoff?
What is the max bank at landing?
7 degrees. After 7 degrees the gear door will hit the runway.
What compressor type is the N2 ?
A centrifugal type compressor
Is it possible to re-align the ESIS in flight?
Does any systems interact with the triggering of the Extinguisher button?
For the first shot, it is triggered directly by the extinguish switch, then the UMS takes authority of the second shot and introduce a delay of 30 sec
What is the ENAV function of the ELT?
To transmit GPS data on 406MHz to aid rescue
What is the flow rate of the motive flow?
What is the "Acceleration Bleed Valve?"
To dump excessive air from the LP axial compressor during accelration, deceleration. Is open Below 75.2% N2 and closed above 77.2%
What is the max speed for flap 15?
What is the bleed down time for the main accumolator?
Which BUS powers the DCPU 4?
Min oil temp for battery engine start?
FMA - Who calls out the mode reversion?
First crew member to notice it
When is Auto Ignitions enabled?
Eng start, Eng flameout and Approach to landing
When does the normal operation of the windshiel system begin?
As soon as generated power avail
What fuel imbalance is needed for auto transfer to start?
220lbs, and stops when imbalance reaches 4 lbs
What is ETTS (Electronig Thrust Trim System)
A system that trims the fuel of the FADEC in cruise without moving the levers
Is it allowed to have any residue de/anti-ice fluids on the radome before departure?
No, this fluid can blow up pn te windscreen during takeoff and taxi
Where and how many fuel quantity probes are fitted?
One in collector, three in inner, one in middle and one in outer of each wing.
At what angle does the MFS extend in the full position?
What is the range of alignment times?
Maximum baggage weight (small restraing net)
How do you move the cursor from one DU to another DU?
Pressing the RH CCD button, or the arrow key on the MFC
How many pitch trim rates?
Three, LOW, MED, HIGH
Max Zero fuel weight?
When can the pilot erase CVR data?
On the ground only
NLG to MLG
What items does trigger a TOW (Take Off Warning)
9 items, Flaps, Stab trim, Ail trim, Rud trim, Park brake, Park brake charge, Thrust set in MCT, Rudder Gust lock, Air brake (spoilers)
What is the total fuel capacity?
For how many seconds do you need to press the button to erase the CVR ?
How do you switch between setting an MDA or an RA minimums?
By pushing the button
Above what temp is WAI inhibited?
If TAT is above 15 degree
What is the maximum cabin climb/descent rate?
+500ft/min and -300ft/MIN
What is the maximum load on the cabin floor?
500kg / m2
Is the AT function available for landing?
No, it must be disconnected at 200AGL
The shortcut keys to radio tuning, GS, RAAS, Flap override and Terraing Inhibit are located?
along the top of the MFC
How do you clear an FMS Message?
By the "Msg Clear" bezel button
What is the normal pitch angle for takeoff?
17 degree for flap 8, 15 degree for flap 15 ??
If the first start attempt failed, what is your next course of action?
Dry motor run
What inputs are required for the Ground Spoilers to extend?
WOW signal, Wheel Spinup, and Thrust at IDLE
What action puts a green check mark next to a checklist item?
Pressing the ENT button on the MFC, or the ECL button on the yoke, or highlightin the item with the wheel and pressing the left button.
If GPU is avail, will its current be used to start both enginge?
NO, the GPU will be used to start one ENG, then that GEN will power the next start
What is the minimum height for an obstavel to appear on the Synthetic vision picture?
From where does the FADEC get air-data in case of total loss of aircraft generator power?
Takes data fromthe normal air-data which is ice protected (normal static pitot system)
TCAS - When is TA inhibited?
GRD-1100 RA on DEP, +900ft RA on approach
Which bus provides power for the ECMU in manual mode?
What is the maximum rudder travel ?
How does the SGU work?
It is a 3 phase, six pole induction device
What is the tire pressure of the MLG?
Where can you find information regarding the SAT?
Bottom right side of the PFD, to the right of the HSI
Which functions are lost if flying above Lat Limits?
AT, Flight path symbol, SmartView (Synth Vision), VOR Bearing Pointer
What is the max speed for flap 8?
What is the maximum split which can be maintained in temperature between cockpit and cabin?
Which areas are monitored for overheat detection?
Engine pylons, rear fuselage,right overwing fairing and forward belly fairing
What is the ICE shedding procedure?
Smootly increase power to 85% N1 and N2 for 10 sec and monitor
What is the purpose of the "Alert Buzzer"
To operate when the ELT is activated by generating a buzzing sound in cockpit
What is the normal latitude range for magnetic HDG to be valid? (ESIS)
+- 70 degree N/S
In order to deploy flaps after dual generator fail, the pilot must select?
The "FLAP EMER PWR" pushbutton
Command Cue formats?
Selectable via MFD, VBar, Crossbar or Flight Path symbol
What lateral navigation mode will be the source if TOGA is pressed during GA?
FMS source, "NAV" is armed, and active above 400ft AGL
What is the normal stab pitch trim range for TO?
0.5 - 3.5 degrees
What is the height to add in case of a FMS CDFA approach, if using APR and VGP?
The elevator and the rudder each have redundat set of cables that pass through the tailcone, why?
To protect against engine rotor burst cable damage
Maximum mach number to extend the gear?
When VNAV is captured, the vertical deviation pointer goes from, what color?
Cyan to magenta
Max windspeed for cargo door operation?
When a navigation mode, lateral or vertical is captured, its color is?
What is the minimum operating temp?
Does the ESIS obtain heading data from the ADAHRS?
No, the ESIS has it's own magnetometer
What is the indication if the transit time for the gear is taking too long?
Will be displayed with white and red in stripes on the landing gear indicator
What happens during "Engine Isolation"
Fuel SOV is closed, Bleed Air SOV is closed and fire extinguishers are armed.
Max cabin diff pressure?
What is the min oil temp for N2 above 80% or QPM?
How many NPRV (Negative Pressure Relief Valves) are fitted in the PC24?
The three purposes of the spoiler system are?
lift dump, Airbrake and Roll assist.
What is the temperature range in each zone?
What is Ice Mode Compensation?
To add a bias to the "clean wing" Stall AOA, to add a more conservative value to protect the aircraft in case of icing conditions.
How do you disconnect AYT?
By using rudder trim switch
Maximum baggage weight (large restraint net)
What is the rudder travel in flap 8?
Do you need to perform a "Shut Off" test before refueling?
Yes, if test fail, no power fueling allowed
Does the YD stay engaged even if AP fails or disconnect?
Above which speed is the SWPS (Stall Warning Protection System) Activated?
What is the indication on the flap indicator if the flap setting is in the wrong position for takeoff?
Cyan prior to setting TO power, and RED after TO power set
What flap positions are there?
0, 8, 15, 33
What can you tell about the SGU, when it comes to the starting current for start?
The electricity is converted via the PCU (Power Conversion Unit) into high freq, high voltage AC
How many igniters used during flameout condition?
What does the FD display during Takeoff?
Fixed target pitch of 15 or 9 degree if OEI, and wings level
When is the Pitch Wheel on the FC active?
Only when the FD is selected on
What is the minimum engagement height for AP?
The gust lock pin locks both the?
Control wheel torque and the rudder pedals
VNAV can command a descent of up to how many degrees?
8 degree path
What is the VCS (Vapor Cycle System)
A system where a refrigarant is passed in a closed system and which is cooled by expansion and compressed by a compressor in the rear compartment
What is the air source coming from for the HSDI
It takes air from the ECS (Environmental Control System)
What is the tire pressure of the NLG?
How many bleed levels are there for WAI?
Two, Bleed level 2 and 3
What is the purpose of the "Pre-Cooler System"?
To cool the bleed air before introduction to the duct. It cools it by 50% at max extraction
What does the FD display during GA?
Fixed target pitch of 9 degrees, wings level, and source will change from LOC to FMS
How many electrical buses does the PC24 have?
Left, Right and Essential bus. 3
How many DC motors drive the OFV?
What is the min oxygen quantity for dispatch?
How many people are allowed on the airstair?
What is the pitch to aim for during Windshear on Approach?
What is the VLE? (gear extended)
What is the maximum recomended holding speed in Ice?
What indications alert pilots to FMS messages?
PFD MSG annonciation and the actual "FMS Message" on the INAV
What is the Generator load in QPM ?
How many balance tabs are installed on the Ailerons?
Just one, located on the left inboard trailing edge
How many halon bottles installed?
What is the indication in flight that the Trim is in motion?
A green dot under the trim indication display
What is the function of the scavenge ejector?
To supply the collector tank with fuel either via booster pump or motive flow
At what angle does the MFS extend in the 1/2 position?
Cabin alt at 45000'
If you have completed a DEFUEL of the aircraft, and then a subsequent refuel, are there any requirements before engine start?
YES, you need to make TWO Dry Motor runs before the engine start?
When are the MFS (Multi Function Spoilers) used to assist in roll control?
Low speed, with flaps 8 or more
Is there any up or downlock on the MLG?
What is the VMCG?
87kt for flap 8/15
When can a CAS procedure be started?
Only after the PPAA has been completed
When is the YD engaged?
When AP is engaged for first time
Is it possible to manually disengage YD above 30000 ft?
Which side is fire extinguiser and PBE located?
Right, behind FO
Is windshield and side window heating aval with GPU or QPM active?
Does the speed brake deploy automatically in case of high speed, and at which speed?
Yes, If speed exceed Mach 0.751, regardless of thrust lever position.
The ACE Avionic system is build around?
Two MAU (Modular Avionics Unit) which handle processing and computation of primary avionics function
The first step to adding a CCD selected waypoint to the flightplan is?
Click on the point and open a dialog box to add it (Amend Route)
Is it possible to extend flaps when operating over a limiting speed?
When is a fire detect signal triggered?
When any 5 inch segment reaches a temp of 510 +-40 degrees.
What will happen if you leave the PWR Refuel / Defuel switch in ON?
Battry 1 will eventually deplete
Which side is axe and googles located?
Left, befind CMD
What is the max speed for flap 33?
What is the max wheel speed?
What is the starter duty cycle limits?
first: 50 sec ON, 60 sec cooldown. Dry motor: 50sec on 60 sec cooldown. Start 2, 50 sec ON, 30min cooldown.
What is "Pre-Departure Mode" and how long can it be sustained?
Is active then BATT 1 is ON, and has this capacity for around 1 hour.
What is the VLO? (Gear retraction)
What is the positive differential pressure which activates the Positive PRV (Pressure Relief Valve)
From where is the NAI bleed air tapped?
Upstream of the Bleed Air SOV
What is the min bat temp in flight?
During which circumstances does the FADEC command an auto shutdown?
N1 Overspeed, N2 Overspeed, Due LP shaft separation, Total loss of ALL electric power (Aircraft+PMA Sources)
Min diff pressure?
At what altitude does the passenger mask deploy (normal conditions)
12850 +- 150
What conditions must be met for the hydraulic motor to charge the brake accumulator?
Gear extended,Flaps out of zero and one engine running.
AP/AT/YD minimum height for disconnect
200ft AGL for VPG / ILS. 400ft for other non-precision approaches
What does the "EMPTY" caption on the Fire Extinguisher Switch mean?
That both bottles are empty
Above which altitude and for how long are you required to carry oxygen for?
Above 25000 and 10 min
When a navigation mode, lateral or vertical is armed, its color is?
What is the lowest voltage for BAT 1 before engine start?
Mach Trim is active above which speed?
How is the passenger oxygen generated?
Use the same system as cockpit
What is the purpose of the TCV (Temperature Control Valve)?
To regulate what mixing ratio of cool air from DHE and warm air from the ECS
Maximum Pressure refueling pressure is?
Is it allowed to operate the Tail De-Ice boots if temp is below -40 degree?
Yes, if needed, but visual inspection must take place before next departure
When will you get a "Fuel Level Low"?
Below 250lbs in one wing
What is the MAX altitude for enginle re-start?
Which Turbine stage drives the N1 Spool?
Second and third stage turbine
What is the max addtion to VREF?
How is each main wing tank divided?
inner, middle and outer tank plus a vent tank
Is it allowed to land Flap 33 in active ICE condition?