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Which BUS powers the DCPU 1?
Essential bus
What happens if the Fuel Imbalance exceeds 440lbs?
Auto transfer is stopped
How many static dischargers are there on the stabilizer?
What is the function of the SGU, Starter Generator unit?
It has a dual function, can work as a start motor, and also as a generator
How to disconnect RB?
AP Disc, YD engagement, Thrust is symmetrical again
If the trim is out of range for TO, what color will the indication have?
Bank limit protection at VMO MMO?
Are redced by 20 degree, activates at 31 and stops at 11
What is the "Off-Load Cabin Mode"
When the cabin is a source of smoke, to de-energice galley, 60hz outlets, toilet pumps and inflight entertainment system.
How does the detector loop of the PC-24 work?
The detector consist of a sealed gas-filled tube which operates on the principle of gas expand with increase in temp and triggers a warning over a set-limit, both for overpressure and underpressure (leak)
Which DCPUs are used for right/left bus?
DCPU 1+3 for LEFT, DCPU 2+4 for RIGHT
What is the callout to resume CAS procedure?
What exterior lights are powered by the essential bus?
Left inboard landing, left inboard taxi and wing inspection light, cockpit lights
When MUST a static take off be used?
When RVR close to Take Off minimum or Contamintated runway
Maximum cargo weight (tie down kit in baggage compartment)
Which batteries are powered in "Refuel Mode"
Both BAT will be powered when in Refuel Mode
What is the "PPAA"
Power Performance Analysis Action
Who resets Warning / Caution lights after acknowledging failiures?
Load limits flaps down?
+2,0 - 0,0 g
Which engine is the Master for the ETTS (Electronic Thrust Trim System)
Left eng
The horizon line that delineates the sky/ground break in the ADI is called?
ZPRL (Zero pitch reference line)
For 180 degree turn, what technique should be used?
Approach with 45 degree angle, use differential brake and thrust
Will BLUE CAS messages cause an aural alert?
What is the Parking Brake check of the Pre-flight?
Set and release Parking brake until pressure falls below 2800PSI, make sure pump starts and fills accumulator above 2800PSI, and then pump stops
What is generator load in idle and above?
400 Amp
When is ICE MODE 2 activated?
ICE have been detected, but the WAI system did not operate properly. Its latched until landing, or can be manually overridden.
How far out do the range rings display on the synthetic vision?
20nm, in increments of 3nm, 5nm, 10nm and 20nm
What is the callout for RoD?
Bank limit protection
Approaching 51 degree, and stops when back to 31 degree
When is the TAWS disabled?
Speed greater than 60kt
What flap setting for contamintaed runway? (Takeoff)
Only Flap 15
When is the "Normal Operating Mode" Active?
When respective bus is powered by respective generator and batteries are charged by respective charger
What speed should the IAS crosscheck be delayed to in case of contaminated runway?
Is fuel transfer allowed on takeoff?
What is the max bank at landing?
7 degrees. After 7 degrees the gear door will hit the runway.
What compressor type is the N2 ?
A centrifugal type compressor
Is it possible to re-align the ESIS in flight?
Does any systems interact with the triggering of the Extinguisher button?
For the first shot, it is triggered directly by the extinguish switch, then the UMS takes authority of the second shot and introduce a delay of 30 sec
What is the ENAV function of the ELT?
To transmit GPS data on 406MHz to aid rescue
What is the flow rate of the motive flow?
What is the "Acceleration Bleed Valve?"
To dump excessive air from the LP axial compressor during accelration, deceleration. Is open Below 75.2% N2 and closed above 77.2%
What is the max speed for flap 15?
What is the bleed down time for the main accumolator?
Which BUS powers the DCPU 4?
Left+Right Bus
Min oil temp for battery engine start?
-40 degree
FMA - Who calls out the mode reversion?
First crew member to notice it
When is Auto Ignitions enabled?
Eng start, Eng flameout and Approach to landing
When does the normal operation of the windshiel system begin?
As soon as generated power avail
What fuel imbalance is needed for auto transfer to start?
220lbs, and stops when imbalance reaches 4 lbs
What is ETTS (Electronig Thrust Trim System)
A system that trims the fuel of the FADEC in cruise without moving the levers
Is it allowed to have any residue de/anti-ice fluids on the radome before departure?
No, this fluid can blow up pn te windscreen during takeoff and taxi
Where and how many fuel quantity probes are fitted?
One in collector, three in inner, one in middle and one in outer of each wing.
At what angle does the MFS extend in the full position?
35 degrees
What is the range of alignment times?
Maximum baggage weight (small restraing net)
How do you move the cursor from one DU to another DU?
Pressing the RH CCD button, or the arrow key on the MFC
How many pitch trim rates?
Max Zero fuel weight?
14220 lbs
When can the pilot erase CVR data?
On the ground only
What items does trigger a TOW (Take Off Warning)
9 items, Flaps, Stab trim, Ail trim, Rud trim, Park brake, Park brake charge, Thrust set in MCT, Rudder Gust lock, Air brake (spoilers)
What is the total fuel capacity?
For how many seconds do you need to press the button to erase the CVR ?
8 seconds
How do you switch between setting an MDA or an RA minimums?
By pushing the button
Above what temp is WAI inhibited?
If TAT is above 15 degree
What is the maximum cabin climb/descent rate?
+500ft/min and -300ft/MIN
What is the maximum load on the cabin floor?
500kg / m2
Is the AT function available for landing?
No, it must be disconnected at 200AGL
The shortcut keys to radio tuning, GS, RAAS, Flap override and Terraing Inhibit are located?
along the top of the MFC
How do you clear an FMS Message?
By the "Msg Clear" bezel button
What is the normal pitch angle for takeoff?
17 degree for flap 8, 15 degree for flap 15 ??
If the first start attempt failed, what is your next course of action?
Dry motor run
What inputs are required for the Ground Spoilers to extend?
WOW signal, Wheel Spinup, and Thrust at IDLE
What action puts a green check mark next to a checklist item?
Pressing the ENT button on the MFC, or the ECL button on the yoke, or highlightin the item with the wheel and pressing the left button.
If GPU is avail, will its current be used to start both enginge?
NO, the GPU will be used to start one ENG, then that GEN will power the next start
What is the minimum height for an obstavel to appear on the Synthetic vision picture?
200 ft
From where does the FADEC get air-data in case of total loss of aircraft generator power?
Takes data fromthe normal air-data which is ice protected (normal static pitot system)
TCAS - When is TA inhibited?
GRD-1100 RA on DEP, +900ft RA on approach
Which bus provides power for the ECMU in manual mode?
Essential bus
What is the maximum rudder travel ?
28 degrees
How does the SGU work?
It is a 3 phase, six pole induction device
What is the tire pressure of the MLG?
73 psi
Where can you find information regarding the SAT?
Bottom right side of the PFD, to the right of the HSI
Which functions are lost if flying above Lat Limits?
AT, Flight path symbol, SmartView (Synth Vision), VOR Bearing Pointer
What is the max speed for flap 8?
What is the maximum split which can be maintained in temperature between cockpit and cabin?
5 degrees
Which areas are monitored for overheat detection?
Engine pylons, rear fuselage,right overwing fairing and forward belly fairing
What is the ICE shedding procedure?
Smootly increase power to 85% N1 and N2 for 10 sec and monitor
What is the purpose of the "Alert Buzzer"
To operate when the ELT is activated by generating a buzzing sound in cockpit
What is the normal latitude range for magnetic HDG to be valid? (ESIS)
+- 70 degree N/S
In order to deploy flaps after dual generator fail, the pilot must select?
The "FLAP EMER PWR" pushbutton
Command Cue formats?
Selectable via MFD, VBar, Crossbar or Flight Path symbol
What lateral navigation mode will be the source if TOGA is pressed during GA?
FMS source, "NAV" is armed, and active above 400ft AGL
What is the normal stab pitch trim range for TO?
0.5 - 3.5 degrees
What is the height to add in case of a FMS CDFA approach, if using APR and VGP?
The elevator and the rudder each have redundat set of cables that pass through the tailcone, why?
To protect against engine rotor burst cable damage
Maximum mach number to extend the gear?
When VNAV is captured, the vertical deviation pointer goes from, what color?
Cyan to magenta
Max windspeed for cargo door operation?
When a navigation mode, lateral or vertical is captured, its color is?
What is the minimum operating temp?
-65 degree
Does the ESIS obtain heading data from the ADAHRS?
No, the ESIS has it's own magnetometer
What is the indication if the transit time for the gear is taking too long?
Will be displayed with white and red in stripes on the landing gear indicator
What happens during "Engine Isolation"
Fuel SOV is closed, Bleed Air SOV is closed and fire extinguishers are armed.
Max cabin diff pressure?
9,27 psi
What is the min oil temp for N2 above 80% or QPM?
+10 degree
How many NPRV (Negative Pressure Relief Valves) are fitted in the PC24?
The three purposes of the spoiler system are?
lift dump, Airbrake and Roll assist.
What is the temperature range in each zone?
15-30 degrees
What is Ice Mode Compensation?
To add a bias to the "clean wing" Stall AOA, to add a more conservative value to protect the aircraft in case of icing conditions.
How do you disconnect AYT?
By using rudder trim switch
Maximum baggage weight (large restraint net)
530 lb
What is the rudder travel in flap 8?
26 degree
Do you need to perform a "Shut Off" test before refueling?
Yes, if test fail, no power fueling allowed
Does the YD stay engaged even if AP fails or disconnect?
Above which speed is the SWPS (Stall Warning Protection System) Activated?
Above 45kt
What is the indication on the flap indicator if the flap setting is in the wrong position for takeoff?
Cyan prior to setting TO power, and RED after TO power set
What flap positions are there?
0, 8, 15, 33
What can you tell about the SGU, when it comes to the starting current for start?
The electricity is converted via the PCU (Power Conversion Unit) into high freq, high voltage AC
How many igniters used during flameout condition?
What does the FD display during Takeoff?
Fixed target pitch of 15 or 9 degree if OEI, and wings level
When is the Pitch Wheel on the FC active?
Only when the FD is selected on
What is the minimum engagement height for AP?
400ft AGL
The gust lock pin locks both the?
Control wheel torque and the rudder pedals
VNAV can command a descent of up to how many degrees?
8 degree path
What is the VCS (Vapor Cycle System)
A system where a refrigarant is passed in a closed system and which is cooled by expansion and compressed by a compressor in the rear compartment
What is the air source coming from for the HSDI
It takes air from the ECS (Environmental Control System)
What is the tire pressure of the NLG?
58 psi
How many bleed levels are there for WAI?
Two, Bleed level 2 and 3
What is the purpose of the "Pre-Cooler System"?
To cool the bleed air before introduction to the duct. It cools it by 50% at max extraction
What does the FD display during GA?
Fixed target pitch of 9 degrees, wings level, and source will change from LOC to FMS
How many electrical buses does the PC24 have?
Left, Right and Essential bus. 3
How many DC motors drive the OFV?
What is the min oxygen quantity for dispatch?
680 liter
How many people are allowed on the airstair?
What is the pitch to aim for during Windshear on Approach?
9 Degree
What is the VLE? (gear extended)
What is the maximum recomended holding speed in Ice?
What indications alert pilots to FMS messages?
PFD MSG annonciation and the actual "FMS Message" on the INAV
What is the Generator load in QPM ?
250 Amp
How many balance tabs are installed on the Ailerons?
Just one, located on the left inboard trailing edge
How many halon bottles installed?
What is the indication in flight that the Trim is in motion?
A green dot under the trim indication display
What is the function of the scavenge ejector?
To supply the collector tank with fuel either via booster pump or motive flow
At what angle does the MFS extend in the 1/2 position?
20 degrees
Cabin alt at 45000'
If you have completed a DEFUEL of the aircraft, and then a subsequent refuel, are there any requirements before engine start?
YES, you need to make TWO Dry Motor runs before the engine start?
When are the MFS (Multi Function Spoilers) used to assist in roll control?
Low speed, with flaps 8 or more
Is there any up or downlock on the MLG?
What is the VMCG?
87kt for flap 8/15
When can a CAS procedure be started?
Only after the PPAA has been completed
When is the YD engaged?
When AP is engaged for first time
Is it possible to manually disengage YD above 30000 ft?
Which side is fire extinguiser and PBE located?
Right, behind FO
Is windshield and side window heating aval with GPU or QPM active?
Does the speed brake deploy automatically in case of high speed, and at which speed?
Yes, If speed exceed Mach 0.751, regardless of thrust lever position.
The ACE Avionic system is build around?
Two MAU (Modular Avionics Unit) which handle processing and computation of primary avionics function
The first step to adding a CCD selected waypoint to the flightplan is?
Click on the point and open a dialog box to add it (Amend Route)
Is it possible to extend flaps when operating over a limiting speed?
When is a fire detect signal triggered?
When any 5 inch segment reaches a temp of 510 +-40 degrees.
What will happen if you leave the PWR Refuel / Defuel switch in ON?
Battry 1 will eventually deplete
Which side is axe and googles located?
Left, befind CMD
What is the max speed for flap 33?
What is the max wheel speed?
What is the starter duty cycle limits?
first: 50 sec ON, 60 sec cooldown. Dry motor: 50sec on 60 sec cooldown. Start 2, 50 sec ON, 30min cooldown.
What is "Pre-Departure Mode" and how long can it be sustained?
Is active then BATT 1 is ON, and has this capacity for around 1 hour.
What is the VLO? (Gear retraction)
What is the positive differential pressure which activates the Positive PRV (Pressure Relief Valve)
From where is the NAI bleed air tapped?
Upstream of the Bleed Air SOV
What is the min bat temp in flight?
0 degree
During which circumstances does the FADEC command an auto shutdown?
N1 Overspeed, N2 Overspeed, Due LP shaft separation, Total loss of ALL electric power (Aircraft+PMA Sources)
Min diff pressure?
-0,3 psi
At what altitude does the passenger mask deploy (normal conditions)
12850 +- 150
What conditions must be met for the hydraulic motor to charge the brake accumulator?
Gear extended,Flaps out of zero and one engine running.
AP/AT/YD minimum height for disconnect
200ft AGL for VPG / ILS. 400ft for other non-precision approaches
What does the "EMPTY" caption on the Fire Extinguisher Switch mean?
That both bottles are empty
Above which altitude and for how long are you required to carry oxygen for?
Above 25000 and 10 min
When a navigation mode, lateral or vertical is armed, its color is?
What is the lowest voltage for BAT 1 before engine start?
21.0 V
Mach Trim is active above which speed?
How is the passenger oxygen generated?
Use the same system as cockpit
What is the purpose of the TCV (Temperature Control Valve)?
To regulate what mixing ratio of cool air from DHE and warm air from the ECS
Maximum Pressure refueling pressure is?
Is it allowed to operate the Tail De-Ice boots if temp is below -40 degree?
Yes, if needed, but visual inspection must take place before next departure
When will you get a "Fuel Level Low"?
Below 250lbs in one wing
What is the MAX altitude for enginle re-start?
Which Turbine stage drives the N1 Spool?
Second and third stage turbine
What is the max addtion to VREF?
How is each main wing tank divided?
inner, middle and outer tank plus a vent tank
Is it allowed to land Flap 33 in active ICE condition?
No, use flap 15
What is the function of the balance tabs?
To lighten the control feel for the pilot
How many DU and what are their funcitons?
DU1 = CMD PFD, DU2= Upper MFD, DU3= Lower MFD, DU4 = FO PFD
Can Terrain and Weather be displayed at the same time?
Yes and no. On the PFD HSI, NO, but on the INAV you can overlay weather over the Topographical satellite map
Where is the light switch for the refuel/defuel panel located?
Light is controlled through the PWR-REFUEL/DEFUEL switch located on the panel itself.
Which generator powers which bus?
Left gen - Left bus. Right Gen - Right bus. Left gen powers essential bus
How many brake wear indicators are on each main wheel assembly?
Where is each AFCS system located?
In the MAU1 (Modular Avionics Unit) and MAU2. MAU2 is secondary. Each are switched on a power cycle
Airport and localizer feathers can be displayed on the map by?
Selecting aiports in the "Aeronautical" dropdown menu
When is ICE MODE 1 activated?
If an ICE signal have been received for 70sec, the mode is latched until flight in TAT +15 for 10 min
How can you disconnect the Autothrottle?
By disc button, or by overriding and holding throttle in new desired position for 2 seconds. Aural warning will be present until cancelled by button
Which conditions must be met before deactivation of the stick pusher?
AOA 2 degree less than Pusher thresold, or less than 0.5 G of load.
How many spoiler panels per wing?
Latitude Limits of AHRS
N70, S70
Can the AP fly the GA?
Engine Starting - how many igniters are used for in-flight start?
What lights are available via the BAT 1 Direct bus?
Welcome lights and ground equipment compartment light
When does the ECU abort an engine start?
SLow N2 excessive ITT for mor than 10 sec. Ecessive ITT rise or ITT exceedance. Engine does not achieve light off within 12 sec or idle within 60sec.
What system pressure does the hydraulic system try to maintain?
A master warning chime is acknowledged by?
Pressing the Master warning button
What is the maximum duration of the Tt2 Pt2 sensor lock during takeoff?
2 min
Airbrake min height usage?
50 AGL
Which electrical bus powers the CPCS?
Right bus
TF, Tactile Feedback
Attempt to recover excessive bank or VMO MMO
How do you engage AT on ground?
By pressing button, then advance thrust to 50% and speed below 60kt
Max tire speed?
How is Thrust Director activated?
When FD is engaged, TD is also engaged
FO PFD+Lower MFD is driveb by which AGM?
AGM2 in MAU2
Where can you see which mode your transponder is in, without looking on the radio page on the DU1/DU4?
On the bottom of the INAV
What is the lenght of the fire detection loop?
4.2 m
From which altitude is there sufficient pressure differential to flush the toilet?
16000 ft
Below which speed will you have a GEAR warning with the flaps up?
Below 129 kt
Is there any requirement for GPU connection?
Yes, the output voltage of GPU must be greater than current battery volatge
What is ground idle N2?
Ca 53-56%
What is the steering angle of the NLG?
17degree left, 15.6 degree right
How is the FADEC powered?
By its own PMA (Permanent Magnet Alternator) provided that the N2 is at least 80%, otherwise the electrical power is drawn from its respective bus
What is the min speed for flap retraction?
Selecting the HEAT softkey on the ECS page does what?
Disables the entire cooling system. VCS (Vapor Cooling System)
How many thermostatic switches are there for overheat detection?
Which bus powers the RTL?
Left and Essential Bus
What are the recommended landing flaps settins?
33 for Normal and short runway, 15 for OEI or TURB or suspected windshear
The inner altitude selectro knob will change altitude by?
When does the FADEC abort Inflight start?
No lightoff after 49.5 sec or no Idle speed within 132 sec
How is fuel heated in the collector tank?
By the motive flow, which is returned from the engines
What indication will you have if the Burst disk assembly ruptures?
The disk is interconnected via a relay to the SOV, the CAS message will be "Bleed Off / Fail"
When the "HDG?" CAS appears, what is the IRS vs AHRS DG drift?
6 degrees
Which BUS powers the DCPU 2?
Right Bus
For pitch attitudes more than 25 degrees, the solid white horizon line changes to a dashed white line, what does this denote?
That it's "non-conformal" (not to scale)
Are you required to use anti-icing additive for the fuel?
No, it's not required, but normally added by the fueling company to their trucks.
Which BUS powers the DCPU 3?
Left Bus
The primary means of de-fog / de-ice the windshield is?
Electrical windshield heating
What is the callout on the beginning of the braking?
What is the "EXACT" System for the Engine Exhaust?
A system designed to take advanted of the Coanda Effect to change the direction of the airflow, by approx 3 degrees.
Clear Ice - Cold Soak: At what temperatures are we at risk for clear ice build-up?
OAT less than 6 degree, or if wing fuel is below 0 and, Visible moisture, water on the wing, difference in temp and dew of 3 degrees or less
What is the maximum time to light off for engine start?
12 sec
What is the temp range for the WHS in Low Power Mode?
20-25 degrees
When is a "Fuel Imbalance" CAS posted?
330lbs of difference
What is the purpose of the "Burst Disk Assembly" and at what pressire does it rupture?
To protect from overpressure in the bleed duct, ruptures betweem 105-120 PSI
TCAS - When is the "Increase Descent" Callout inhibited?
Below 1450' RA
What is the source of CMD PFD?
What is the minimum YD engagement height?
50ft AGL; and landing gear must have been selected up
Total usable fuel?
5964 lbs
Min bat voltage for start?
21.0 for BAT 1, 23.5 for BAT 2
When controlling the cabin pressure in Manual mode, are there any protections?
Yes, the ECMU limits cabin alt exceeding 14500ft
What is the maximum weight of a "towbar-less" tug if used?
Max 2.4 ton
What is the maximum flap extension for icing condition?
Flap 15
Does the slip/skid indicator change color if the deviation is excessive, and to what color in that case?
Yes, it turns amber
Max pressure diff for TO or LDG?
0,7 psi
Maximum Suction defueling pressure is?
10 PSI
How many seconds must GPU button be pressed to make Aircraft powerless?
5 sec
Maximum battery charge rate before takeoff?
Bat1+2 must be less than 50A and drecreasing.
What is the VLO (Gear Extension) for Emergency gravity freefall?
At what airspeed is the MFS spoiler aileron assist enabled?
Speed less than 175kt with flap 8 or more.
Max tailwind for eng start?
At what controll wheel deflection is the MFS spoiler control activated?
Yoke of +- 27 degrees or more
EGPWS - Will the System work correctly during Single Gen situation?
Yes, provided that the right and left bus is tied.
What is the maximum generator voltage?
29.5 V DC
What is the temperature threshold which will triger a leak in the Pylon area?
130 degrees
After selecting the secondary pitch trim switch to "ON", can you use the stab pitch trim on the yoke?
No, it is disabled
Who initiates the PPAA?
Which primary flight control surface have balance tabs which also function as trim tabs?
Left aileron and the rudder
Flight idle N2 at sea level?
Ca 63%
Eninge manufacture and model?
Williams FJ44
How many axis can the AP control?
3 axis
How many cycles of the boots are performed after ICE is no longer detected?
Three cycles
How many spools does the Williams FJ44 have?
On which side is the Stick shaker motor attached?
Left side control yoke
When is the RB active?
Below 2500ft, Levers in TO, YD set to OFF
What will happen during a double engine fire on ground?
The system will isolate both engines, discharege at least 1 extinguisher.
Engine Starting - How many igniters are used for normal eng snart?
What is the max Latitude for IRU alignment?
78,25 degrees N/S
The cockpit standard emergency equipment includes:
Fire extisnguisher, Smoke googles, Emergency lightning, Passenger oxygen system, ELT
How is the DHE (Dual Heat Exchanger) provided with air during ground operation?
By an electric fan via the dorsal scoop
How many fuel quantity probes are fitted?
12 in total
When does the ECU (Engine Control Unit) command the FCU (Fuel Control Unit) to start metering fuel to the ENG during Start?
At 7.3% N2
Automatic pitch trim compesates the pitch changes with the deployment of, in addition to the Mach Trim?
Flaps, Airbrake, landing gear.
How many smoke detectors are installed?
One, in the bagage compartment
Who calls out the CAS message during a failure?
What happens to the indication of a Caution or Warning message when it is confirmed?
Changes indication from being in "inverse video" to "normal video"
How many AHRS are installed?
Two, AHRS 2 and AHRS 3. AHRS3 for YAWDAMPER functions
How is EDM engaged and what peculiarities are there?
Engage 5sec after CABIN ALT, desc to 15k ft, VMO/MMO, and can only be overridden by AP disc, no other push buttons work.
Which spoiler panels are the Ground Spoilers and which the MFS?
Two inboard are Ground spoilers, two outboard are the MFS
Max TO weight?
18300 lbs
Which Turbine stage drives the N2 spool?
First stage turbine
Can the cargo door be used as an emergency exit?
No, it can't be opened from the inside
How many channels are installed in each DCPU?
Two, Channel A and B
Can you manually turn the synthetic vision off?
What actions do you need to do if you want the Aircraft to fly a descent path at TOD?
A lower altitude must have been selected and the VNAV button must have been pressed
For how long does the bleed overheat have to persist to have a CAS message posted?
10 seconds
What is "Quiet Power Mode"
A mode where the GEN 2 can supply loads of 250 A
What is the callout for a speed deciation, and when to call it?
"SPEED", +-10 during all phases excep approach. +10 -5kt during approach
Ground cold soak - What do you do if fuel on collector tank is below -10?
Use the N2 table "4A-CW-1" to decide which N2 power setting / time. Also NOTE, max 80% N2 if OIL IS BELOW +10 DEGREE
During a GS from Above intercept, what is the lowest altitude that may be set ?
1000ft AAE
Is there some automatic pitch trim function when extending speed brakes?
Yes, to counteract nose down by deployment. Some pitch trim is required by pilot also
When does the Automatic fuel transfer stop?
When imbalance exceeds 440lbs, or becomes less than 4.5lbs, or if the Fuel Low level CAS is posted (250lbs remaining in a tank), or if fuel quantity data becomes invalid.
How many servos for the Yaw control / dampening?
Can you turn Thrust Director off?
Yes, via the FCS page on the MFD. But Auto Thrust can only be engaged with Thurst director on
Which DCPU is powered in case of no generators avail in flight?
Who handles the thrust lever in ENG out?
PM reduces it to IDLE
What is the max altitude for pax oxygen masks?
What is the min time on ground following rejected take off at Vr -20kt?
What is the minimum charge pressure in the Park / Emerg accumulator priot to TO?
2750 PSI
How is the TF system activation displayed?
On the ADI by TF and corresponding mode in amber, BNK or MxSPD
What is the normal pitch for OEI?
11 degree flap 8 / 9 degree flap 15 Takeoff
How many potentiometers are located in the Spoiler Handle?
Two, one drives the inboard MFS channel, and the other the Outboard MFS channel
Maximum fuel temperature?
Which BUS powers which battery charger?
Left Bus powers BATT 1, right bus powers BATT 2
Is it possible to move through Flap 15 without stopping?
No, you need to place the handle in 15 position and the reselect another flap setting
If the trim is out of range for TO, what color will the indication have, if you set the thrust to TO detent?
What is the requirement to run the electric air conditioning system?
QPM, Eng Gen, or GPU
What is the temperature threshold which will triger a leak in the Rear fuselage, right over-wing fairing and forward belly fairing
85 degrees
What is the steering angle in "castoring mode"?
+- 60 degrees
If Emergency RAM Air is opened, is it possible to close it in flight?
What is the time delay between Engine isolation and first shot being armed?
5 sec
Load limits flaps up?
+3,0 - 1,2 g
How many RAPS (Roll Assist Position Sensors) are located, and where?
Two, one on each control yoke. Left yoke drives outboard MFS, right yoke drives Inboard MFS
At what altitude does the passenger mask deploy, (Backup mode)
14800 +- 500
How many igniters per engine?
What is ASP (Auto Speed Protection)
Automatically engage AT if low or high speed condition. Can be disengaged by pressing AP Disc
Min fuel temp?
How many SGUs?
What is the max crosswind comp?
20kt demonstrated
How often must ICE Shedding be accomplished for the engines?
Every 15 minutes
How many ailerons and spoilers?
2 ailerons and 8 spoilers
What is the redundancy of the Fire warning channels?
There are two channels, one goes directly to the glareshield mounted indications, the second channel routes directly to the UMS.
What is "Thrust HOLD" and when is it active?
Holds Thrust Levers in fixed position, from 60kts up to 400ft AGL
Which battery is used during the PDM (Pre Departure Mode)
Bat 1
VNAV constraints are displayed in the?
Waypoint list
How is the current generated by the SGU?
The SGU delivers unregulated, high freq, high voltage AC current which is converted via the PCUs
The rudder has two servos on the aft quadrant, why?
To provide redundant autopilot and yaw damper function
Which aural warnings cannot be silenced?
Stall, Take off config, Gear and overspeed
The left pilot can redover from an AGM1 failure by?
Selecting AGM 2 on the DU control panel, as directed by the QRH
What determines which FMS is the Master?
Coupled side "direction arrow" and NAV sources slected
Rudder travel limiter - How many positions can it have?
Thre different stops, depending on AC config
What factor do you apply for the Takeoff data for the presence of thikened fluids that have NOT blown off during the takeoff roll?
You calculate with IPS on and a factor of 1.1
At what N2 should you start to see N1 rotation during start?
What is the minimum speed with flaps retracted in ICE conditions?
150 Kt
What indications can you expect on a fire warning?
Eng symbol turns red, Red flag FIRE inside ITT, FIRE on the Glareshield switchlight, Engine Fire CAS message, Audio Callout, ITT indication on the DU1 Engine instrument and fire warning on PFD
During walkaround, what should you look for at the NLG and MLG?
At the NLG look at the stop wedgess, at the MLG look at the hard landing indicator
What component does the UMS use to distribute electrical power?
4 EDPUs (Electronic Distribution Power Unit
What speed call out is made on takeoff?
What are the normal disconnect option for the AP?
Quick Disc on wheel, AP switch on flight controller, Pitch trim, Stick shaker
What is the max permissible oil consumption?
0,128 quart/hr
The FC (Flight Controller) is used to control most modes, except?
GA, TCS (Control wheel Steering) QD (Quick Disconnect)
Below what altitude is the vacuum pump used to flush the toilet?
Ignition - Approach to landing?
Activates the same igniter used for start when all 3 landing gears are down
Maximum runway slope
='+- 2%
Pressing the CABIN LO button will maintain which elevation?
Elevation at destination
What is the callout on landing upon spoiler extension?
"Lift Dump"
CAS messages are organized by color, which color has the highest priority?
Red,Amber, Cyan and White
What is the purpose of the UMS (Utility Management System)
Integrates monitoring and control of multiple aircraft funcions into one system and comunicates with ACE avionics for synoptic display, system control and CAS message logic.
Overspeed protection, when does it activate?
When VMO +1kt, or if trend rapidly approaching. Deactivates when speed is VMO 2kt, or if max pitch of 10 degree is reached
From where is the electricity coming for the SGU to start the engine?
From BATT2, or GPU or other operating generator
Ground cold soak - what do you do if Bleed Air SOV does not open after engine start?
Advance thrust to allow equipment to warm up
Max landing weight?
16900 lbs
Primary pitch trim power is via a circuit breaker on which bus?
Essential bus
What is the min recommended hight for Air Brake Use?
How can you turn the VSD (Vertical Situation Display) on and off?
By pressing the "VSD" Bezel button
What is the source of FO PFD?
What can be the outcome of a double engine fire in air?
Loss of both eng GEN, in that case only ESS BUS left by batt, this results in only 1 shot being available.
How long will the Emer Accumulator hold its pressure after brakes applied?
Min 24hrs
What is the callout if PF wants assistance with something during a CAS procedure`? (How do you pause the procedure?)
How many DCPU Are there, and where located?
4. 3 are beneath cabin floor along centerline, and 4th in forward avionics
How long is the de-spin cycle during the gear retraction?
6 sec
How many DCPU (Data Concentration Processing Units) are there on the Aircraft?
Above which speed does the spoilers extend during a rejected takeoff?
Above 45kt
Who calls "Start CAS Procedure for.."
What is the maximum flap permitted if Horizontal Stab can not be assured free of ice for landing?
15 degree
In which flap positions do you get the max rudder travel?
Flap 15 and 33 degree
What is the capacity of the water tank?
1.6 gallons
Cabin "Dump" Switch : What altitude will the activation dump the cabin pressure to?
Thrust Director
Is displayed on the ADI to aide pilots in manual thrust setting
What is the nominal holding speed in Ice?
How long is the inflation cycle for the boots?
6 seconds
How is the landing gear actuated?
Electro Mechanical
Which BUS powers the left booster pump?
Essential bus
Min runway for 180 turn
What is the maximum allowed cargo weight?
2500 lb
What is the recommended procedure when activating NAI?
Let it be on for 2min
Does the pitch trim system automatically trim the AC with flap extension/retraction?
What is the preferred airframe "landmark" to check for Ice in flight?
Bottom margin of the forward windshield, and wingtip
If the ECL (Electronic checklist) is not displayed, how can you display it?
By pressing the "CKLST" on the MFC or by using the page button on the scroll wheel
When is EDM (Emergency Descent Mode) armed?
Above 30000ft
Does the VSD scale change in synch with the laterial INAV map display changes?
How many seconds must the aircraft have been airborne before stick pusher is activated?
At least 7 sec
Whas is the rudder travel in flap 0?
20 degree
How many PTA (Pitch Trim Actuators) are installed?
Two, one for primary channel and one for secondary channel
Min bat temp for eng start (Li-ion)
-5 degree
What is the time between the first and second dry motor run, and what is the maximum dry motor time?
Time inbetween is Minimum 1 min, and maximum dry motor cycle is 50 sec
The outer altitude selector knob will change altitude by?
With the IPS Switch in "AUTO" and on ground, will the system activate if ICE Detectors sense ICE?
No, only functions in air.
Is there some inhibit logic in place to inhibit messages during certain stages of flight?
How many batteries are part of the electrical system on the PC24?
What are the abnormal disconnect for the AP?
AP elevator or servo fail, AP monitor fail
How can you disengage the AT?
By overriding the lever movement.
When landing field elevation is more than 8000 feet, what will the max cabin altitude shift to?
9500 feet instead of 8000feet
Is there any PTC (Pitch Trim Compensation) during gear extension?
Yes, if the speed is high enough, above Mach 0.55
What is the purpose of the "Emergency Flap Mode"
To power RIGHT BUS via the Batteries to operate the flaps
Whas is the callout for Pitch and when do you call it?
"PITCH" +30 -20 in normal phase, +10 - 5 in approach
What is the capacity of the main batteries?
The UMS is actually made up of 4 components, what are they called?
DCPU - Data Concentration Processing Units
How many CB resets are allowed?
A red X on a DU indicates?
An AGM failure
What powers the "motive flow" from the collector tank?
High pressure fuel being returned from the FCU
When does the ATR (Automatic Thrust Reserve) system get active?
Speed greater han V1 + 0.5sec or 15% split in N1
What is Rudder Bias function?
Provides YD function to compensate for assymetric thrust
What color does the FPS (Flight Path Symbol) have when using the single cue/Cross pointer mode?
What us the purpose of the AYT (Automatic Yaw Trim)?
Will control the sideslip and maintain half trapezoid of indicated slip in OEI
The isolation valve ensures separation of the main hydraulic accumulator and the emergency brake accumulator when the aircraft is in flight only, true or false?
TCAS - When is RA inhibited?
GRD-1100 RA on DEP, +900ft RA on approach
Max ramp weight?
18400 lbs
How many static dischargers are there on the Rudder?
Is there an inhibit logic to the Spoiler extension?
Yes, if Thrust is set to MCT or TOGA the spoilers retract automatically
What is the engine cool down time?
2 min at idle
Which EPDU are used for right/left bus?
EPDU 1+3 for LEFT, EPDU 2+4 for RIGHT
Is the cargo door closed by an over-center gas assist strut?
No, the over center strut assist in door opening. An electric motor connected by a wire closes the dorr
Maximum tailwind
What is the max diff pressure for landing?
0.7 PSI
RNP AR approaches, what is the minimim RNP value approach approved?
RNP 0.3
In order to skip a checklist item in a sequence, and to be able to return to the item later, what action must be taken?
Pressing the DEFER button
What is the lowest voltage for BAT 2 before engine start?
23.5 V
Is it possible to extend the speed brake if primary pitch trim has failed?
Yes, but only if speed is less than 250 kt
How many pressure switches are the in the fire detection system?
At what speed is anti-skid operational?
Above 10kts
How many AFCS (Automatic Flight Control System)
Max crosswind for eng start?
What is the minimum engine oil lever prior dispatch?
Oil must not be below the "ADD" indicator mark on the tank sight glass
What is the time limit before shutting down either engine?
2 min
Is it possible to retract the gear after emergency extension?
How many SM-3000 Servos are installed in the PC-24?
What is the minimum BATT temp to start engines?
-5 degrees
Min Bat temp for eng start (NiCd)
-20 degree
What can happen if you have a roll of 11.5 degree or more, for more than 3 min?
An amber HDG degraded indication may be displayed
Above what altitude is YD disconnect inhibited?
30000 ft
Manual Ignition, how many igniters powered?
Two are activated
CMD PFD+Upper MFD is driven by which AGM?
AGM1 in MAU1
How can you tell the if the Airbrake is extended in 1/2 position or Full position?
In 1/2 position the "AIRBRK" is showed in "Normal video", in Full it will be showen in "Inverse video"
What is the flap retraction procedure when aircraft has been operating in icing conditions?
Do not retract flaps fully, position them at Flap 8
Does AT engage on GA?
Yes, Provided you have not switch it off for landing!
"Flight Instruments" Check, what does that mean?
QNH set, compare altitude between PFDs, max 30ft from airfield, and 40 ft within each altimiter
What is the VLO? (Gear extension)
When on ground, and selecting BAT 2 ON, Which mode will be active?
"Pre-Start Mode"
What is the purpose of the Electric heater on the landing gear?
To prevent the temp to fall below -55 on the gear. When temp falls below -40 the heater activates and stops when gear is -35 degrees.
Is QPM allowed with Russian type TS-1 Fuel?
What is the min speed to be used in case of Air Brake extended?
Vref +5
What is the QPM N2?
Fixed at 45.4%
Constraints are displayed in the VSD as?
small white triangles
Where is the ODI (Overboard Discharge Indicator) Located?
On the lower right corner of the right nose bay door
Is there any up or downlock on the NLG?
There is no uplock, but there is a downlock
What is included in the "Pre Takeoff Check"? (In icing condition)
Visually inspect: Wing leading edge and upper surface+windshield. Do a chek to make sure: Flaps extend fully and retract+Flight controls
What is the maximum load per meter on the seat rails?
1000kg / m
What compressor type is the N1 ?
A LP fan stage, and a three stage IP axial flow compressor
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